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NCLEX-RN Dumps and Practice Test (865 Exam Questions)
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The NCLEX-RN® exam is the licensing exam for entry-level nurses. This exam covers the required knowledge, skills, and attitudes to become a licensed registered nurse in the United States. The NCLEX-RN® exam is taken by nurses who are preparing to be licensed as registered nurses. It is taken after graduation from an approved nursing program. Students must have been accepted by an approved school. NCLEX certifications is the pathway to the NCSBN Board Certification in Nursing. ConfidentNursing (CN) certification is the pathway to the Certified Nurse Aide (CNA) credential. Nurse assesses(NARN), and the CNA credential is the pathway to the Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) credential. Arterial puncture is the pathway to the Registered Respiratory Therapist(RRT). The exam is designed to test your knowledge of the basic concepts of nursing as they apply to nursing practice. NCLEX-RN Dumps is study the required knowledge, skills, and attitudes for the NCLEX-RN® exam. Exam files are made available on the NCSBN website, which is a free service to all who wish to take the exam. Exam sources are included in each file.
NEW QUESTION 310
A client is admitted to the labor room. She is dilated 4 cm. She is placed on electric fetal monitoring. Which of the following observations necessitates notifying the physician?
- A. Fetal heart decelerations at the beginning of contractions
- B. Contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 100 seconds
- C. Beat-to-beat variability between contractions
- D. Fetal heart decelerations during a contraction
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) These are tetanic in nature and can cause rupture of the uterus. (B) The FHR decreases during contractions owing to vasoconstriction and should recover after the contraction. (C) Beat-to-beat variability is a normal finding and demonstrates fetal wellbeing. (D) The FHR may decrease at the beginning of a contraction owing to head compression.
NEW QUESTION 311
A client has been uncomfortable in crowds all her life. After the birth of her child, she has
been housebound unless her husband can accompany her to the grocery store and for medical appointments. His schedule will not allow for this, and he has insisted that she must be more independent. Her anxiety has increased to the point of panic. The client has been diagnosed with agoraphobia. Which statement is true about this disorder?
- A. Agoraphobia moves into remission when treated with chlorpromazine.
- B. More men suffer from agoraphobia than women.
- C. The fears are persistent, and avoidance is used as the coping mechanism.
- D. The behavior is not considered disabling.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Agoraphobia is the most pervasive and serious phobic disorder. (B) Women compose 70%-85% of agoraphobia sufferers. (C) Agoraphobia is an acute disorder that immobilizes the sufferer with extreme anxiety. (D) Chlorpromazine is not a drug used to treat phobias.
NEW QUESTION 312
A 52-year-old client who underwent an exploratory laparotomy for a bowel obstruction begins to complain of hunger on the third postoperative day. His nasogastric (NG) tube was removed this morning, and he has an IV of D5W with 0.45% normal saline running at 125 mL/hr. He asks when he can get rid of his IV and start eating. The nurse recognizes that he will be able to begin taking oral fluids and nourishment when:
- A. His blood pressure returns to its preoperative baseline level or greater
- B. It is determined that he has no signs of wound infection
- C. The nurse can detect bowel sounds in all four quadrants
- D. He is able to eat a full meal without evidence of nausea or vomiting
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The absence of wound infection is related to his surgical wound and not to postoperative GI functioning and return of peristalsis. (B) Routine postoperative protocol involves detection of bowel sounds and return of peristalsis before introduction of clear liquids, followed by progression of full liquids and a regular diet versus a full regular meal first. (C) Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction is to assess for the return of bowel sounds within 72 hours after major surgery, because that is when bowel sounds normally return. If unable to detect bowel sounds, the surgeon should be notified immediately and have the client remain NPO. (D) Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction and other major surgeries involves frequent monitoring of vital signs in the immediate postoperative period (in recovery room) and then every 4 hours, or more frequently if the client is unstable, on the nursing unit. This includes assessing for signs of hypovolemic shock. Vital signs usually stabilize within the first 24 hours postoperatively.
NEW QUESTION 313
Early in her ninth month of pregnancy, a client has been diagnosed as having mild preeclampsia. In counseling her about her diet, the nurse must emphasize the importance of:
- A. Decreasing her fluids
- B. Increasing her carbohydrate intake
- C. Decreasing her sodium intake
- D. Eating a moderate to high-protein diet
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Women with pregnancy-induced hypertension have a reduced plasma volume secondary to venous vessel constriction, not hypovolemia; therefore, sodium restriction is not recommended. It is suggested that these women avoid extremely salty foods. (B) Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day facilitates optimal fluid volume and renal perfusion, but it will not decrease the venous vessel constriction of pregnancy-induced hypertension. (C) Carbohydrate needs increase during pregnancy, specifically during the second and third trimesters, but they have not been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension. (D) Loss of urinary protein (proteinuria) is associated with increased permeability of the large protein molecules with pregnancy-induced hypertension.Additional dietary protein also helps increase the plasma colloidal osmotic pressure. Diets deficient in protein have been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension.
NEW QUESTION 314
Which of the following nursing orders should be included in the plan of care for a client with hepatitis C?
- A. Total bed rest should be maintained until the client is asymptomatic.
- B. The nurse should use universal precautions when obtaining blood samples.
- C. The client should be instructed to maintain a low semi-Fowler position when eating meals.
- D. The nurse should administer an alcohol backrub at bedtime.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) The source of infection with hepatitis C is contaminated blood products. (B) Modified bed rest should be maintained while the client is symptomatic. Routine activities can be slowly resumed once the client is asymptomatic. (C) Nausea and vomiting occur frequently with hepatitis C.
A high Fowler position may decrease the tendency to vomit. (D) The buildup of bilirubin in the client's skin may cause pruritus. Alcohol is a drying agent.
NEW QUESTION 315
On the first postpartal day, a client tells the nurse that she has been changing her perineal
pads every 1/2 hour because they are saturated with bright red vaginal drainage. When palpating the uterus, the nurse assesses that it is somewhat soft, 1 fingerbreadth above the umbilicus, and midline. The nursing action to be taken is to:
- A. Catheterize the client and reassess the uterus
- B. Begin IV fluids and administer oxytocic medication
- C. Gently massage the uterus until firm, express any clots, and note the amount and character of lochia
- D. Administer analgesics as ordered to relieve discomfort
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Gentle massage and expression of clots will let the fundus return to a state of firmness, allowing the uterus to function as the "living ligature." (B) A distended bladder may promote uterine atony; however, after determining the bladder is distended, the nurse would have the client void. Catheterization is only done if normal bladder function has not returned. (C) Oxytocic medications are ordered and administered if the uterus does not remain contracted after gentle massage and determining if the bladder is empty. (D) The client is not complaining of discomfort or pain; therefore, analgesics are not necessary.
NEW QUESTION 316
A 32-year-old female client is being treated for Guillain- Barre syndrome. She complains of gradually increasing muscle weakness over the past several days. She has noticed an increased difficulty in ambulating and fell yesterday. When conducting a nursing assessment, which finding would indicate a need for immediate further evaluation?
- A. Facial paralysis
- B. Complaints of a headache
- C. Complaints of shortness of breath
- D. Loss of superficial and deep tendon reflexes
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 317
A 65-year-old client who has a new colostomy is preparing for discharge from the hospital. As part of the instructions on colostomy care, the nurse explains to the client that to regulate the bowel, colostomy irrigation should be performed at the same time each day. The best time is:
- A. Every 2 hours
- B. After meals
- C. Before meals
- D. At bedtime
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Bowel movements should be regulated at a specific time each day to prevent "accidents." Irrigating after meals takes advantage of the gastrocolic reflex and time of increased peristalsis, so better results may be produced. After meals is the normal time that peristalsis begins in most persons and evacuation of feces occurs. (B) Irrigating before meals may cause poor results because of decreased gastrocolic reflex and decreased peristalsis. (C) Irrigating a colostomy every 2 hours may produce hyperactivity of the bowel, leading to irritation and diarrhea. This would not aid in regulation of the bowel. (D) If irrigation of a colostomy were done at bedtime, there is greater chance of having an "accident" during sleep. This would not be an advantageous practice of bowel regulation.
NEW QUESTION 318
The nurse enters the playroom and finds an 8-year-old child having a grand mal seizure. Which one of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Restrain the child so he will not injure himself.
- B. Move furniture out of the way and place a blanket under his head.
- C. Go to the nurses station and call the physician.
- D. Place a tongue blade in the child's mouth.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The nurse should not put anything in the child's mouth during a seizure; this action could obstruct the airway. (B) Restraining the child's movements could cause constrictive injury. (C) Staying with the child during a seizure provides protection and allows the nurse to observe the seizure activity. (D) The nurse should provide safety for the child by moving objects and protecting the head.
NEW QUESTION 319
Often children are monitored with pulse oximeter. The pulse oximeter measures the:
- A. O2 content of the blood
- B. Oxygen saturation of arterial blood
- C. PO2
- D. Affinity of hemoglobin for O2
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) The O2 content of whole blood is determined by the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) and the oxygen saturation. The pulse oximeter does not measure the PO2. (B) The pulse oximeter is a noninvasive method of measuring the arterial oxygen saturation. (C) The PO2 is the amount of O2 dissolved in plasma, which the pulse oximeter does not measure. (D) The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is the relationship between oxygen saturation and PO2 and is not measured by the pulse oximeter.
NEW QUESTION 320
A client at 6 months' gestation complains of tiredness and dizziness. Her hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL, and her hematocrit value is 32%. Her nutritional intake is assessed as sufficient. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. Fatigue due to stress
- B. No problem indicated
- C. Physiological anemia
- D. Iron-deficiency anemia
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This clinical situation is indicative of iron-deficiency anemia because the client has inadequate nutritional intake. Her blood volume is increasing faster than her red blood cell volume. Anemia is present in the second trimester when the hemoglobin level is <10.5 and the hematocrit value falls below 35%. She needs increased iron supplements with follow-up. (B) The client's values are below levels for physiological anemia. (C) The client is fatigued because of a low hemoglobin level. (D) Her hemoglobin level is low and will probably decrease even more when the blood volume peaks at 28 weeks.
NEW QUESTION 321
The nurse notes multiple bruises on the arms and legs of a newly admitted client with lupus. The client states,
"I get them whenever I bump into anything." The nurse would expect to note a decrease in which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. WBC count
- B. Number of platelets
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Number of lymphocytes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelets, occurs in lupus and causes a decrease in blood coagulation and thrombus formation. (B) Clients with lupus will have a decrease in the WBC count decreasing their resistance to infection. (C) Clients with lupus may have a decrease in the hemoglobin level causing anemia. (D) Leukopenia, a decrease in white blood cells, is seen in lupus and decreases resistance to infection.
NEW QUESTION 322
A client diagnosed with severe anemia is to receive 2 U of packed red blood cells. Prior to starting the blood transfusion, the nurse must:
- A. Hang Ringer's lactate as the companion fluid
- B. Have the registered nurse in charge assume responsibility for verifying the client and blood product information
- C. Use microdrip tubing for the blood administration
- D. Take a baseline set of vital signs
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) A baseline set of vital signs is necessary to determine if any transfusion reactions occur as the blood product is being administered. (B) The only companion fluid to be used during a blood transfusion is normal saline. The calcium in Ringer's lactate can cause clotting. (C) Only a blood administration set should be used.
A microdrip tube would cause lysis of the red blood cells. (D) Proper identification of the recipient and the blood product must be validated by at least two people.
NEW QUESTION 323
The nurse caring for a client who has pneumonia, which is caused by a gram-positive bacteria, inspects her sputum. Because the client's pneumonia is caused by a gram-positive bacteria, the nurse experts to find the sputum to be:
- A. Green colored
- B. Bright red with streaks
- C. Pink-tinged and frothy
- D. Rust colored
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Bright red sputum with streaks is associated with pneumonia caused by gram-negative bacteria, such asKlebsiellapneumonia. (B) Pneumococcal pneumonia, caused by gram-positive bacteria, has a characteristic productive cough with green or rust-colored sputum. (C) Green-colored sputum is more characteristic ofPseudomonasthan of gram-positive bacterial pneumonia. (D) Pink-tinged and frothy sputum is more characteristic of pulmonary edema than of gram-positive bacterial pneumonia.
NEW QUESTION 324
A client experiencing delusions states, "I came here because there were people surrounding my house that wanted to take me away and use my body for science." The best response by the nurse would be:
- A. "I know that must be frightening for you; let the staff know when you are having thoughts that trouble you."
- B. "Describe the people surrounding your house that want to take you away."
- C. "There were no people surrounding your house, your relatives brought you here, and no one really wants your body for science."
- D. "I need more information on why you think others want to use your body for science."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Focusing on the delusional content does not reinforce reality. (B) Pursuing details or more information on the delusion reinforces the false belief and further distances the client from reality. (C) Challenging the client's delusional system may force the client to defend it, and you cannot change the delusion through logic. (D) Focusing on the feeling can reinforce reality and discourage the false belief. Seeking out staff when thoughts are troublesome can help to decrease anxiety.
NEW QUESTION 325
When teaching a class of nursing students, the nurse asks why the embryonic period (weeks 4-8) of pregnancy is so critical.
- A. Duplication of genetic information takes place.
- B. Kidneys begin to secrete urine.
- C. Subcutaneous fat builds up steadily.
- D. Organogenesis occurs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Duplication of genetic material occurs during the preembryonic period (weeks 1-3) following conception. The exact duplication of genetic material is essential for cell differentiation, growth, and biological maintenance of the organism. (B) Weeks 4-8, known as the embryonic period, are the time organogenesis occurs and pose the greatest potential for major congenital malformations. All major internal and external organs and systems are formed. (C) Subcutaneous fat does not develop until the latter weeks of
gestation. (D) Kidneys begin to secrete urine during the 13th-16th week.
NEW QUESTION 326
Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality.
When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is:
- A. 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL
- B. 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL
- C. 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL
- D. 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The recommended range is 70-120 mg/dL to reduce the risk of perinatal mortality. (B, C, D) These levels are not recommended. The higher the blood glucose, the worse the prognosis for the fetus.
Hypoglycemia can also have detrimental effects on the fetus.
NEW QUESTION 327
A client's renal calculi are identified as consisting of calcium phosphate. Which of the following diets would be appropriate?
- A. Low calcium and phosphorus, acid ash
- B. High calcium, low phosphorus
- C. Low calcium, high phosphorus
- D. Two-gram sodium diet
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The stones consist of calcium and phosphorus; therefore, these minerals should be avoided. A high-calcium diet is contraindicated. (B) A high-phosphorus diet is contraindicated. (C) A 2-g sodium diet is a cardiac diet. (D) A low-calcium and phosphorus diet will reduce further calculi formation.
NEW QUESTION 328
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