Latest May-2024 AACN PCCN Dumps Updated 502 Questions
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AACN PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nursing) Certification Exam is a nationally recognized certification for nurses who work in progressive care units. Progressive care units are hospital units that provide care to acutely ill patients who are not quite sick enough to be in the intensive care unit (ICU). Nurses who work in these units require specialized knowledge and skills to provide safe and effective care to their patients. The AACN PCCN Certification Exam is designed to validate the competency of these nurses and ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to care for these critically ill patients.
Nurses who pass the AACN PCCN Exam and earn the PCCN certification demonstrate to their employers and colleagues that they have a high level of knowledge and skill in caring for patients in progressive care or intermediate care units. Progressive Care Certified Nursing certification can help nurses advance in their careers and increase their earning potential.
NEW QUESTION # 126
A 60 year old man has developed some infection while admitted in hospital, which of the following organisms is responsible for this infection commonly?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Moraxella cattarhalis
- C. Gonnococi
- D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus and methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus are the most common causes of nosocomial infections as they are present in the hospital environment commonly.
NEW QUESTION # 127
The 2016 Sepsis guidelines recommend the use of the sequential (sepsis-related) organ failure (SOFA) score to predict patient outcomes from sepsis. The qSOFA (quick SOFA) can be used as a quick screening tool to identify those patients at risk of death due to sepsis. The qSOFA assesses which of the following variables?
- A. Temperature, pulse oximetry, systolic blood pressure, mentation
- B. Systolic blood pressure, heart rate, mentation
- C. Heart rate, respiratory rate, mentation
- D. Systolic blood pressure, mentation, respiratory rate
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Systolic blood pressure, mentation, respiratory rate
The qSOFA is a much shorter version of the SOFA and is modified to include only three variables: systolic blood pressure, mentation, and respiratory rate. It is considered positive if a patient meets at least two of the following criteria:
* Altered mentation
* Respiratory rate greater than or equal to 22 breaths per minute
* Systolic blood pressure less than or equal to 100 mm Hg
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 279.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A child was diagnosed with Acute Epiglotitis. Which one of the following features is a symptom of Epiglotitis?
- A. All of the above
- B. Tripod position
- C. Drooling and frog like voice
- D. Agitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: All of the above are symptoms of Epiglotitis. Epiglotitis has all the above mentioned features. Tripod position, agitation, drooling and frog like voice all are symptoms of epiglotitis.
NEW QUESTION # 129
According to the National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel, a purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin, or a blood-filled blister due to damage of subcutaneous tissue that occurs under intact skin is:
- A. A Category/Stage 2 pressure injury
- B. A Category/Stage 1 pressure injury
- C. An Unstageable-Unknown Depth pressure injury
- D. Deep tissue injury
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Deep tissue injury
Deep tissue injuries present as purple or maroon discoloration; the skin is non-blanchable and intact.
These injuries are defined as pressure-related injuries to subcutaneous tissue which occurs under intact skin. The area of localized injury may present as a blister or discolored, deep red, purple, or maroon.
These areas may be preceded by tissue that is painful, or warmer or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue. Deep tissue injuries may rapidly evolve and expose additional layers of tissue even with optimal treatment.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 290-291.
NEW QUESTION # 130
In Q wave Myocardial Infarction, the peak CK levels occur in:
- A. 30 hours
- B. 27 hours
- C. 36 hours
- D. 12 hours
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: In Q wave Myocardial Infarction, the peak CK levels occur in 27 hours. Myocardial Infarction occurs due to the imbalance in the demand and supply of oxygen to the heart. Q-wave MI is the transmural infarction in which the infarction and necrosis is prolonged and the peak CK levels occur in
27 hours.
NEW QUESTION # 131
In communicating with families and patients, the least therapeutic interaction by the nurse is to:
- A. Elicit care provider preferences
- B. Apologize for inconveniences
- C. Maintain confidentiality
- D. Provide concise explanations without using medical shorthand
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Elicit care provider preferences
In communicating with families and patients, the least therapeutic interaction by the nurse is to elicit care provider preferences; accommodating requests for preferred care providers should be avoided.
Communication with the patient and the family should be open and honest. Clinicians should avoid contracting for secrets, keep promises, describe expectations, and maintain confidentiality.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 29.
NEW QUESTION # 132
Clinically significant respiratory depression resulting from opioid use is usually treated with which of the following?
- A. Intravenous ondansetron (Zofran)
- B. Subcutaneous naloxone (Narcan)
- C. Subcutaneous ondansetron (Zofran)
- D. Intravenous naloxone (Narcan)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Intravenous naloxone (Narcan)
Clinically significant respiratory depression due to opioid use is usually treated with intravenous naloxone (Narcan).
IV naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist. It should be administered in very small doses and titrated to the desired level of alertness. The half-life of Narcan is very short, approximately 30 to 45 minutes, so careful assessment of the patient is necessary because additional doses may be needed.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 148.
NEW QUESTION # 133
The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old Chinese American, who is dying. When interacting with the client's family, which of the following actions is the most appropriate?
- A. Maintain eye contact
- B. Avoid excessive touching
- C. Maintain rigidity when scheduling care
- D. Head nodding means an agreement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Avoidance of excessive touching is recommended when caring for Asian or Chinese Americans. Limited eye contact and flexibility in scheduling care are appropriate. For Asian Americans, head nodding may not necessarily mean agreement, so the nurse should clarify the family's responses to questions.
NEW QUESTION # 134
All of the following statements are true related to endotracheal suctioning except:
- A. Inserting the suction catheter into the trachea can stimulate the vagus nerve leading to bradycardia or asystole
- B. One indication of the need for suctioning is increased inspiratory pressure on the ventilator
- C. Hyperoxygenation with 100% oxygen for a minimum of 30 seconds is provided prior to each suctioning episode
- D. It is sometimes required on a routine schedule
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is sometimes required on a routine schedule
Endotracheal suctioning is determined by a number of clinical signs and symptoms. It is only done when there is a clinical indication and never on a routine schedule.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 112.
NEW QUESTION # 135
Secondary causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome include:
- A. Systemic sepsis, near drowning, smoke inhalation
- B. Aspiration of stomach contents, pulmonary contusion, smoke inhalation
- C. Systemic sepsis, hypovolemic shock associated with chest trauma, acute pancreatitis
- D. Fat emboli, acute pancreatitis, pulmonary contusion
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Systemic sepsis, hypovolemic shock associated with chest trauma, acute pancreatitis Secondary causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome are mediated by cellular or humoral injury to the capillary endothelium and include:
* Systemic sepsis
* Hypovolemic shock associated with chest trauma or sepsis
* Acute pancreatitis
* Fat emboli
* Trauma
* Disseminated intravascular coagulation
* Massive blood transfusions
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 258.
NEW QUESTION # 136
All of the following statements are true related to valvular heart disease except:
- A. An insufficient valve does not close properly
- B. Normally, when a heart valve opens, there are no pressure gradients between the chambers or vessels above and below the valve
- C. A stenotic valve has a narrowed opening
- D. Valves on the right side of the heart are more commonly affected
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Valves on the right side of the heart are more commonly affected Valves on the left side of the heart are more commonly affected in valvular heart disease as they are constantly exposed to higher pressures.
Under normal conditions, when a heart valve opens, no pressure gradients exist between the vessels or chambers below and above the valve. As valvular heart disease progresses, pressure gradients between the chambers or vessels develop.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 473.
NEW QUESTION # 137
First-line treatment for patients with status epilepticus or prolonged seizures is the administration of a benzodiazepine such as:
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Lamotrigine
- C. Phenytoin
- D. Lorazepam
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Lorazepam
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to control prolonged seizures or status epilepticus.
The second medication given is often phenytoin or fosphenytoin, but these medications are not benzodiazepines. Valproic acid and lamotrigine may be used in the ongoing treatment for seizure control, but they are not benzodiazepines.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 317.
NEW QUESTION # 138
All of the following statements related to haloperidol are true except:
- A. Extrapyramidal reactions to haloperidol are possible
- B. It is associated with the development of tolerance
- C. QTc interval monitoring is required when using haloperidol
- D. It sedates without significant respiratory depression
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is associated with the development of tolerance
Haloperidol is not associated with the development of dependence tolerance or dependence and it induces sedation without significant respiratory depression. This made it popular in the past. However, it is associated with other potential side effects that must be closely monitored.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 156.
NEW QUESTION # 139
On a positive-pressure ventilator, which mode of ventilation ensures that patients receive a predetermined number and volume of breaths each minute and no deviations from the respiratory rate or Vt settings are delivered?
- A. Assist-control ventilation
- B. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
- C. Spontaneous breathing
- D. Control ventilation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Control ventilation
Control ventilation ensures that patients receive a predetermined number and volume of breaths each minute. No deviations from the respiratory rate or Vt settings are delivered with control ventilation.
Generally, in control ventilation, the patient is heavily sedated and may be paralyzed with neuromuscular blocking agents. This mode is most often used in the ICU or operating room and might be used in patients who are paralyzed due to spinal cord injuries or who have a neuromuscular condition that precludes spontaneous breathing but who are otherwise physiologically stable.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 120-121.
NEW QUESTION # 140
How many stages of grief are there in Kubler-Ross's proposal?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: There are 5 stages of grief in Kubler-Ross's proposal. Grief is a normal response to the death or any problem of a patient. Every person deals with grief is very personal, and differently.
NEW QUESTION # 141
A patient is receiving apixaban (Eliquis) for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis. Which of the following statements is true related to this agent?
- A. The appropriate dose for this patient is 20 mg p.o. daily
- B. The appropriate dose for this patient is 5 mg p.o. twice daily
- C. It is an oral factor Xa inhibitor and is also indicated for the treatment of pulmonary embolism and deep venous thrombosis
- D. It can be reversed with idarucizumab (Praxbind)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is an oral factor Xa inhibitor and is also indicated for the treatment of pulmonary embolism and deep venous thrombosis Apixaban and rivaroxaban (Xarelto) are both oral factor Xa inhibitors and are indicated for pulmonary embolism and deep venous thrombosis, VTE prophylaxis, or for prophylaxis of CVA or embolism in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation. At this time, no FDA-approved reversal agent is available for these drugs. The recommended dose of Apixaban for VTE prophylaxis is 2.5 mg p.o. twice daily.
Idarucizumab is the reversal agent for dabigatran.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 185.
NEW QUESTION # 142
When working face-to-face with suicidal clients, the nurse utilizes the following general guidelines except:
- A. Ask the clients how they intend to do the suicide
- B. Ask about previous suicide attempts
- C. Determine whether or not the clients' suicidal ideations are serious or not
- D. Directly asking the clients when they are planning to carry out the suicide
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The nurse has to consider all suicidal threats seriously. Directly asking about the clients' suicidal intentions will not drive them to suicide. The other options are appropriate interventions when dealing with suicidal clients.
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following diagnostic test results would you most likely expect in a patient with an early acute upper gastrointestinal bleed?
- A. Arterial blood gases: metabolic acidosis; white blood cell count: elevated; serum sodium: elevated
- B. Arterial blood gases: respiratory alkalosis; white blood cell count: elevated; serum sodium: decreased
- C. Arterial blood gases: respiratory acidosis; white blood cell count: elevated; serum sodium: elevated
- D. Arterial blood gases: respiratory alkalosis; white blood cell count: elevated; serum sodium: elevated
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Arterial blood gases: respiratory alkalosis; white blood cell count: elevated; serum sodium: elevated Early in acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding, arterial blood gases reveal respiratory alkalosis; later, metabolic acidosis occurs with severe shock and hypoxemia. The white blood cell count is elevated due to inflammation. Initially, serum sodium is usually elevated due to hemoconcentration.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 343.
NEW QUESTION # 144
The framework of principle-based ethics is one of the most influential perspectives in biomedical ethics today. Inherent in this viewpoint, is the belief that four basic principles and derivative rules are binding, but not absolute, and define the essence of ethical obligations in human society. Which of the following is included in the derivative rules?
- A. Nonmaleficence
- B. Justice
- C. Beneficence
- D. Privacy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Privacy
The primary principles outlined by the principle-based approach to ethics are:
* Respect for persons (autonomy)
* Nonmaleficence
* Justice
* Beneficence
The derivative rules or imperatives include:
* Privacy
* Confidentiality
* Fidelity
* Veracity
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 194.
NEW QUESTION # 145
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