CS0-003 Exam Questions - Real & Updated Questions PDF
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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam, also known as CS0-003, is a highly respected and in-demand certification in the field of cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam is designed to validate the skills of professionals who are responsible for detecting, preventing, and responding to cybersecurity threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is designed to equip candidates with the knowledge and skills necessary to analyze data and identify potential cyber threats, as well as develop and implement effective cybersecurity strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 18
A security analyst found the following vulnerability on the company's website:<INPUT TYPE="IMAGE" SRC="javascript:alert('test');">
Which of the following should be implemented to prevent this type of attack in the future?
- A. Output encoding
- B. Code obfuscation
- C. Input sanitization
- D. Prepared statements
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is a type of web application vulnerability called cross-site scripting (XSS), which allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS can be used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or to perform actions on behalf of the victim.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by checking and filtering the user input before processing it. Input sanitization can remove or encode any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Input sanitization can also validate the input against a predefined format or range of values, and reject any input that does not match.
Output encoding is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by encoding the output before sending it to the browser. Output encoding can convert any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser into harmless entities, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Output encoding can also escape any special characters that may have a different meaning in different contexts, such as , /, or ;.
Code obfuscation is a technique that makes the source code of a web application more difficult to read and understand by humans. Code obfuscation can use techniques such as renaming variables and functions, removing comments and whitespace, replacing literals with expressions, or adding dummy code. Code obfuscation can help protect the intellectual property and trade secrets of a web application, but it does not prevent XSS attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?
- A. MITRE ATT&CK
- B. OWASP
- C. OSSTMM
- D. Diamond Model Of Intrusion Analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and dat
a. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .
The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 21
A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script:
Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script?
- A. Ruby
- B. Shell script
- C. Python
- D. PowerShel
Answer: D
Explanation:
The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A company that has a geographically diverse workforce and dynamic IPs wants to implement a vulnerability scanning method with reduced network traffic. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
- A. Credentialed
- B. Agent-based
- C. External
- D. Non-credentialed
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Agent-based vulnerability scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to a central server or console. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can reduce network traffic, as the scans are performed locally and only the results are transmitted over the network. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can also provide more accurate and up-to-date results, as the agents can scan continuously or on-demand, regardless of the system or network status or location.
NEW QUESTION # 23
An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server?
- A. Malicious tiles
- B. Routing table
- C. Static IP address
- D. Hard disk
- E. Primary boot partition
Answer: D
Explanation:
The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?
- A. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
- B. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
- C. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
- D. CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
NEW QUESTION # 25
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?
- A. SIEM
- B. IoC
- C. SOAR
- D. SLA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering.
SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A software developer has been deploying web applications with common security risks to include insufficient logging capabilities. Which of the following actions would be most effective to reduce risks associated with the application development?
- A. Deploy compensating controls into the environment.
- B. Conduct regular code reviews using OWASP best practices.
- C. Implement server-side logging and automatic updates.
- D. Perform static analyses using an integrated development environment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Conducting regular code reviews using OWASP best practices is the most effective action to reduce risks associated with the application development. Code reviews are a systematic examination of the source code of an application to detect and fix errors, vulnerabilities, and weaknesses that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. Code reviews can help to improve the quality and security of the code, as well as to identify and remediate common security risks, such as insufficient logging capabilities.
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a global nonprofit organization that provides free and open resources, tools, standards, and best practices for web application security. OWASP best practices for logging include following a common logging format and approach, logging relevant security events and data, protecting log data from unauthorized access or modification, and using log analysis and monitoring tools to detect and respond to security incidents. By following OWASP best practices for logging, developers can ensure that their web applications have sufficient and effective logging capabilities that can help to prevent, detect, and mitigate security threats.
References: OWASP Logging Cheat Sheet, OWASP Logging Guide, C9: Implement Security Logging and Monitoring - OWASP Foundation
NEW QUESTION # 27
A company's legal department is concerned that its incident response plan does not cover the countless ways security incidents can occur. The department has asked a security analyst to help tailor the response plan to provide broad coverage for many situations. Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal?
- A. Focus on common attack vectors first.
- B. Focus on incidents that may require law enforcement support.
- C. Focus on incidents that affect critical systems.
- D. Focus on incidents that have a high chance of reputation harm.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incident response plan should cover the most important and likely scenarios that could compromise the security and operations of an organization. According to various sources of best practices123, an incident response plan should start by conducting a risk assessment to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities, and prioritize the critical systems that need to be protected and restored in case of an incident. Focusing on incidents that affect critical systems ensures that the incident response plan covers the most severe and impactful situations that could harm the organization's mission, reputation, or legal obligations.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following security operations tasks are ideal for automation?
- A. Security application user errors:
Search the error logs for signs of users having trouble with the security application
Look up the user's phone number
Call the user to help with any questions about using the application - B. Suspicious file analysis:
- C. Email header analysis:
Check the email header for a phishing confidence metric greater than or equal to five
Add the domain of sender to the block list
Move the email to quarantine - D. Firewall IoC block actions:
Examine the firewall logs for IoCs from the most recently published zero-day exploit
Take mitigating actions in the firewall to block the behavior found in the logs
Follow up on any false positives that were caused by the block rules
Answer: C
Explanation:
Email header analysis is one of the security operations tasks that are ideal for automation. Email header analysis involves checking the email header for various indicators of phishing or spamming attempts, such as sender address spoofing, mismatched domains, suspicious subject lines, or phishing confidence metrics. Email header analysis can be automated using tools or scripts that can parse and analyze email headers and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules or thresholds
NEW QUESTION # 29
The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daffy automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failure items according to PCI DSS.
If the venerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean.
If the venerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
INTRUCTIONS:
The simulation includes 2 steps.
Step1:Review the information provided in the network diagram and then move to the STEP 2 tab.
STEP 2: Given the Scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 30
A managed security service provider is having difficulty retaining talent due to an increasing workload caused by a client doubling the number of devices connected to the network. Which of the following
would best aid in decreasing the workload without increasing staff?
- A. EDR
- B. SIEM
- C. SOAR
- D. XDR
Answer: C
Explanation:
SOAR stands for Security Orchestration, Automation and Response, which is a set of features that can help security teams manage, prioritize and respond to security incidents more efficiently and effectively. SOAR can help decrease the workload without increasing staff by automating repetitive tasks, streamlining workflows, integrating different tools and platforms, and providing actionable insights and recommendations. SOAR is also one of the current trends that CompTIA CySA+ covers in its exam objectives. Official Reference:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following best describes the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m.?
- A. LOI
- B. KPI
- C. MOU
- D. SLA
Answer: D
Explanation:
SLA (Service Level Agreement) is the best term to describe the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m., as it reflects the agreement between a service provider and a customer that specifies the services, quality, availability, and responsibilities that are agreed upon. An SLA is a common type of document that is used in various industries and contexts, such as IT, telecom, cloud computing, or outsourcing. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure the performance and quality of the service, such as uptime, response time, or resolution time. An SLA also defines the consequences or remedies for any breaches or failures of the service, such as penalties, refunds, or credits. An SLA can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, improve productivity, and strengthen relationships. The other terms are not as accurate as SLA, as they describe different types of documents or concepts. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a document that outlines the main terms and conditions of a proposed agreement between two or more parties, before a formal contract is signed. An LOI is usually non-binding and expresses the intention or interest of the parties to enter into a future agreement. An LOI can help to clarify the key points of a deal, facilitate negotiations, or demonstrate commitment. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that describes a mutual agreement or cooperation between two or more parties, without creating any legal obligations or commitments. An MOU is usually more formal than an LOI, but less formal than a contract. An MOU can help to establish a common ground, define roles and responsibilities, or outline expectations and goals. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a concept that refers to a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization or individual is achieving its key objectives or goals. A KPI is usually quantifiable and specific, such as revenue growth, customer satisfaction, or employee retention. A KPI can help to track progress, evaluate performance, or identify areas for improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 32
An older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. Which of the following factors would an analyst most likely communicate as the reason for this escalation?
- A. CVSS
- B. Weaponization
- C. Asset value
- D. Scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Weaponization is a factor that describes how an adversary develops or acquires an exploit or payload that can take advantage of a vulnerability and deliver a malicious effect. Weaponization can increase the severity or impact of a vulnerability, as it makes it easier or more likely for an attacker to exploit it successfully and cause damage or harm. Weaponization can also indicate the level of sophistication or motivation of an attacker, as well as the availability or popularity of an exploit or payload in the cyber threat landscape. In this case, an older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. This indicates that weaponization was the reason for this escalation.
NEW QUESTION # 33
The management team has asked a senior security engineer to explore DLP security solutions for the company's growing use of cloud-based storage. Which of the following is an appropriate solution to control the sensitive data that is being stored in the cloud?
- A. IPS
- B. NAC
- C. CASB
- D. WAF
Answer: C
Explanation:
A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a security solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud-based services and applications. A CASB can provide data loss prevention (DLP) capabilities for sensitive data that is being stored in the cloud, such as encryption, masking, tokenization, or redaction. A CASB can also enforce policies and compliance requirements for cloud usage, such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and reporting. The other options are not appropriate solutions for controlling sensitive data in the cloud. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/what-is-cloud-app-security
NEW QUESTION # 34
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